To score a good marks in AFCAT 2023 Candidates are highly recommended to practe the AFCAT Mock Test with answers. This Mock will help you to score well in your exam and also boost your confidence. This Mock test contain Total 100 Multiple Choice Questions of 300 marks each of 3 marks same as the AFCAT Exam pattern. This Mock Test is for Non-Technical Candidates.
The AFCAT Mock test provided here can also be used as the AFCAT Model questions paper with answer since it is in the exactly pattern in which questions are asked in the actual exam. Not only the pattern but also the level and areas are same from which question are regularly asked in the AFCAT. We expect that this AFCAT mock test online free is helpful for you and in case you need more AFCAT mock test pdf then let us know in the comment.
Table of Contents
AFCAT Mock Test with Answer Key Free:
Note: The answers of the questions are given at the end.
Direction 1-3: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:-
In spring, polar bear mothers emerge from dens with three months old cubs. The mother bear has fasted for as long as eight months but that does not stop the young from demanding full access to her remaining reserves. If there are triplets, the most persistent stands to gain an extra meal at the expense of others. The smallest of the cubs forfeits many meals to stronger siblings. Females are protective of their cubs but tend to ignore family rivalry over food. In 21 years of photographing polar bears, I have only once seen the smallest of triplets survive till autumn.
Q1. Female polar bears give birth during
Q2. Mother bear
(a) Takes sides over cubs
(b) Lets the cubs fend for themselves
(c) Feeds only their favourites
(d) Sees that all cubs get an equal share
Q3. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:-
- Polar bears fast as long as eight months due to non availability of prey.
- Polar bears always give birth to triplets.
Which of the assumptions given above is/ are true?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Direction 4-9: Select the most appropriate word from the options against each number:-
As home entertainment, television is rapidly becoming more (4) than any other form. A news broadcast becomes more immediate when people (5) actually see the scene (6) question and the movement of the figures. Films could be viewed in the (7) of the home and a variety of shows are also available. One of the advantages of travel programmes is the (8) of faraway places which many viewers would not (9) see.
Q4. (a) interesting (b) popular (c) powerful (d) purposeful
Q5. (a) could (b) would (c) might (d) shall
Q6. (a) of (b) with (c) as (d) in
Q7. (a) surroundings (b) assistance (c) comfort (d) privilege
Q8. (a) glimpses (b) image (c) portrait (d) picture
Q9. (a) possible (b) rather (c) else (d) otherwise
Direction 10-13: Choose the word which is nearest in meaning to the given word:-
Direction 14-17: Choose the word which is nearly opposite in meaning to the given word:-
Direction 18-21: Choose the word that best defines the given phrases:-
Q18. In weal and woe
(a) By hook or crook
(b) During illness
(c) in prosperity and adversity
(d) During the operation
(a) People against global philosophy
(b) People indulging in treachery
(c) Intelligent minds
(d) Travellers around the world
Q20. A Curtain Lecture
(a) To speak plainly
(b) Vulgar Ideas
(c) Private scolding of a husband by his wife
(d) Hate others
Q21. Square pegs in round holes
(a) A genuinely helpful person
(b) A Clever person
(c) People in the wrong jobs
(d) To be perplexed
Direction 22-25: Choose the correctly spelt word:-
Q22. (a) Equanimity (b) Equannimity (c) Equanimmisty (d) Equinimity
Q23. (a) Vetarinary (b) Veteninary (c) Veterinary (d) Vetniary
Q24. (a) Konnoisseur (b) Conoisseur (c) Connoisseur (d) Konoisseur
Q25. (a) Munifisent (b) Muneficent (c) Munificent (d) Munificient
Direction 26-29: Which word or words explains the meaning of the following idioms:-
Q26. In a jiffy
(c) In a fix
Q27. Upto the hilt
(b) Upto the mark
(c) Upto the final decision
(d) None of these
Q28. Man of Letters
(a) Who writes too many letters
(b) An important person
(c) A politician
(d) A literary person
(b) Go on leave
(c) Changed Suddenly
(d) Make an attempt
Direction 30-65: Choose the most appropriate answer:-
Q30. Which country among the following has been declared Ebola-free by WHO?
(a) Sierra Leone
Q31. How many Gold medals did India win in the Incheon Asian Games held in Oct 2014?
Q32. Who has been appointed as the new Finance Secretary of India?
(a) Arvind Mayaram
(b) Rajiv Mehrishi
(c) Kaushik Basu
(d) Dinesh Gupta
Q33. Which among the following is India’s first long range subsonic cruise missile?
(a) Agni II
Q34. The branch of science that studies cells is called
Q35. How many Vice Presidents are elected at the start of its each regular session of UN General Assembly?
(d) Twenty one
Q36. The highest civilian award of India ‘Bharat Ratna’ has been awarded to only two foreigners so far. One of them is Nelson Mandela. The other is
(a) Marshal Tito
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Abdul Wali Khan
Q37. Sir CV Raman was awarded Nobel Prize for his work connected with which of the following phenomenon of radiation?
Q38. In which city is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank located?
Q39. K-15 missile is
(a) Submarine launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM)
(b) Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM)
(c) Medium Range Ballistic Missile (MRBM)
(d) Short Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM)
Q40. India agreed to UN Chief Ban Ki-Moon’s offer to remain as a member of the advisory board of one of the following recently.
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Q41. Kaziranga National Park is famous for
(a) One-horned Rhinos
(c) Swamp Dears (Barasingha)
Q42. Who was the first Indian to win an individual medal in Olympics?
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) PT Usha
(c) Karnam Malleshwari
(d) KD Jadhav
Q43. Who among the following was the Congress President at Madras Session of 1927 when it boycotted the Simon Commission?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) MA Ansari
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Q44. Why did Kalinga prove to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka?
(a) Ashoka annexed Kalinga
(b) It was the starting point of the expansion of his empire
(c) Ashoka became a zealous Buddhist
(d) It enabled Mauryan Empire to reach its climax
Q45. Which of the following wings was not part of the espionage system described by Kautilya?
(a) Crime Branch
(b) Special Branch
(c) Political Branch
(d) None of these
Q46. Alauddin Khalji did not build
(a) Siri Fort
(b) Tomb of Jalaluddin
(d) Jamaat Khana Masjid
Q47. Which of the following dynasties was ruling over North India at the time of Alexander’s invasion?
Q48. Which of the following Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles (ICBMs) is under development in India?
Q49. Who among the following was adjudged as the Most Valuable Player of the 17th Asian Games held at Incheon, South Korea?
(a) Mary Kom of India
(b) Kosuke Hagino of Japan
(c) Ning Zetao of China
(d) None of these
Q50. The opposition party status is accorded to a political party in the Lok Sabha only if it captures at least
(a) 5% Seats
(b) 10% Seats
(c) 15% Seats
(d) 20% Seats
Q51. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A Bend in the River’?
(a) Chetan Bhagat
(b) VS Naipaul
(c) Kiran Desai
(d) Anita Desai
Q52. ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is a book written by
(a) Sonia Gandhi
(b) LK Advani
(c) Nelson Mandela
(d) Benazir Bhutto
Q53. Which sports personality has been awarded the honorary rank of Group Captain by the IAF?
(a) Kapil Dev
(b) Sania Mirza
(c) Saina Nehwal
(d) Sachin Tendulkar
Q54. A man travelled from a point A to B at the rate of 25 Kmph and walked back at the rate of 4 Kmph. If the whole journey took 5 hrs 48 minutes, the distance between A and B is
(a) 30 Km
(b) 24 Km
(c) 20 Km
(d) 51.6 Km
Q55. A Train travelling at a uniform speed clears a platform 200 m long in 10 seconds and passes a telegraph post in 5 seconds. The speed of the train is
(a) 36 km/h
(b) 39 km/h
(c) 72 km/h
(d) 78 km/h
Q56. The price of sugar increases by 20% due to the festive season. By what percentage should a family reduce the consumption of sugar so that there is no change in the expenditure?
(b) 18 1/ %
(c) 16 2/ %
(d) 16 1/ %
Q57. A’s salary is 20% lower than B’s salary, which is 15% lower than C’s salary. By how much percent is C’s salary more than A’s salary?
Q58. The average weight of 5 men is increased by 2 Kg when one of the men whose weight is 60 Kg is replaced by a new man. The weight of the new man is
(a) 50 Kg
(b) 65 Kg
(c) 68 Kg
(d) 70 Kg
Q59. A and B can do a piece of work in 18 days; B and C can do it in 24 days, A and C can do it in 36 days. In how many days B alone can finish the work?
(a) 48 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 28 4/5 days
(d) 144 days
Q60. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
(a) 12 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 18 days
Q61. A man can row 9 1/3 Kmph in still water and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current is
(a) 3 1/3 Kmph
(b) 3 1/9 Kmph
(c) 4 2/3 Kmph
(d) 4 1/3 Kmph
Q62. The speed of a boat in still water is 10 Kmph. If it can travel 26 Km downstream and 14 Km upstream in the same time, the speed of the stream is
(a) 2 Kmph
(b) 2.5 Kmph
(c) 3 Kmph
(d) 4 Kmph
Q63. If a sum becomes double in 16 years, how many times will it be in 8 years?
(a) 1 ½ times
(b) 1 1/3 times
(c) 1 ¾ times
(d) 1 ¼ times
Q64. In how many years will a sum of Rs 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become Rs 926.10?
(a) 1 1/3
(b) 1 ½
(c) 2 1/3
(d) 2 ½
Q65. A sells 2 TV sets, one at a loss of 15% and another at a profit of 15%. Find the loss/gain percentage in the overall transaction?
(d) No profit, no loss
Direction 66-70: Each of these questions given below contains three elements. These elements may or may not have some inter-linkage. Each group of elements may fit into one of these diagrams at (a), (b), (c) or (d). You have to indicate the group of elements which correctly fits into the diagrams.
Q66. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Doctors, Human Beings and Married People?
Q67. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Man, Worker and Garden?
Q68. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Males, Cousins and Nephews?
Q69. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Children, Naughty, and Studious?
Q70. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Thief, Criminal and Police?
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Direction 71-75: In each of the following questions find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
Q71. Loath : Coercion :: ?:?
(a) Detest : Caressing
(b) Irritate : Caressing
(c) Irate : Antagonism
(d) Reluctant : Persuasion
Q72. Trilogy : Novel :: ?:?
(a) Rice : Husk
(b) Milk : Cream
(c) Serial : Episode
(d) Gun : Cartridge
Q73 Wife : Marriage :: ?:?
(a) Bank : Money
(b) Nationality : Citizenship
(c) Service : Qualification
(d) Attendance : Register
Q74. East : Orient :: ?:?
(a) North : Polar
(b) North : Tropic
(c) South : Capricorn
(d) West : Occident
Q75. Ignominy : Disloyalty :: ?:?
(a) Death : Victory
(b) Martyr : Man
(c) Fame : Heroism
(d) Destruction : Victory
Direction 76-80: In each of the following questions, four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose the word which is different from the rest.
Q76. (a) Aravalli hills (b) Shivalik hills (c) Mole hills (d) Satpura hills
Q77. (a) Beaver (b) Alpaca (c) Walrus (d) Koala
Q78. (a) Othello (b) King Lear (c) Oliver Twist (d) Macbeth
Q79. (a) Nimitz (b) Yamamoto (c) Nelson (d) Montgomery
Q80. (a) Blaze (b) Glint (c) Simmer (d) Shimmer
Direction 81-85: In each of the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of figure (X) would complete the pattern.
Direction 86-90: Each of the following questions consists of five figures marked 1,2,3,4 and 5 called the Problem Figures followed by four other figures marked a, b, c and d called the Answer Figures. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.
Direction 91-95: Each of the following questions consists of two sets of figures. Figures 1, 2, 3 and 4 constitute the Problem Set while figures a, b, c and d constitute the Answer Set. There is a definite relationship between figures (1) and (2). Establish a similar relationship between figures (3) and (4) by selecting a suitable figure from the Answer set that would replace the question mark (?) in fig.(4).
Direction 96-100: In each problem, out of the four figures marked (a) (b) (c) and (d) three are similar in a certain manner. However, one figure is not like the other three. Choose the figure which is different from the rest.
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AFCAT Mock Test : Answer Key
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